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51. A customer does NOT wish to bridge a Fibre Channel segment to their IP network. Which type of switch would be used to connect their IP hosts to perform block storage on a CX3-40c?
A. FC switch
B. iFCP switch
C. FCIP switch
D. Ethernet switch
Answer: D
52. Which topology provides a low-cost solution for connecting host and storage together in a simple centralized network?
A. FC-AL
B. FC-FE
C. FC-FA
D. FC-SW
Answer: A
53. A storage administrator is looking to connect 100 servers to 30 storage devices in a shared environment. Which solution is recommended?
A. SCSI
B. FC-AL
C. FC-SW
D. Direct-attach
Answer: C
Friday, August 29, 2008
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (17)
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48. Which statement describes the Fibre Channel interface?
A. USB data transfer interface
B. SATA data transfer interface
C. Serial data transfer interface
D. Parallel data transfer interface
Answer: C
49. Which Fibre Channel topology is used to increase host-to-storage connectivity and performance in an enterprise environment?
A. Fibre Channel bus
B. Fibre Channel ring
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. Fibre Channel arbitrated loop
Answer: C
50. A customer is setting up a campus-wide storage Fibre Channel SAN. All hosts are within 450 meters of the switches to which they are connected. The arrays are within 50 meters of the switches to which they are connected. All switches are between 2 to 4 kilometers of any other switches to which they are connected.
Which type of cable(s) is/are needed?
A. All multi-mode cable
B. All single-mode cable
C. Multi-mode cable for the hosts and arrays, and single-mode cable for the interswitch communication
D. Single-mode cable for the hosts and arrays, and multi-mode cable for the interswitch communication
Answer: C
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48. Which statement describes the Fibre Channel interface?
A. USB data transfer interface
B. SATA data transfer interface
C. Serial data transfer interface
D. Parallel data transfer interface
Answer: C
49. Which Fibre Channel topology is used to increase host-to-storage connectivity and performance in an enterprise environment?
A. Fibre Channel bus
B. Fibre Channel ring
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. Fibre Channel arbitrated loop
Answer: C
50. A customer is setting up a campus-wide storage Fibre Channel SAN. All hosts are within 450 meters of the switches to which they are connected. The arrays are within 50 meters of the switches to which they are connected. All switches are between 2 to 4 kilometers of any other switches to which they are connected.
Which type of cable(s) is/are needed?
A. All multi-mode cable
B. All single-mode cable
C. Multi-mode cable for the hosts and arrays, and single-mode cable for the interswitch communication
D. Single-mode cable for the hosts and arrays, and multi-mode cable for the interswitch communication
Answer: C
Wednesday, August 27, 2008
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (16)
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44. A disk drive fails in a RAID 5 group without a hot spare. The failed disk is replaced with a new disk. Which operation will occur to replace the data on the new drive?
A. Clone
B. Repair
C. Rebuild
D. Equalize
Answer: C
45. What is a characteristic of write cache in CLARiiON arrays?
A. Both of the storage processors have the same information in their write cache.
B. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each storage processor.
C. Write cache size can be changed on the storage processors while write cache is enabled.
D. When an I/O arrives at the owning storage processor, acknowledgment is sent to the host.
Answer: A
46. What is a characteristic of write cache in CLARiiON arrays?
A. Write cache size cannot be changed without rebooting the SP.
B. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each SP.
C. In the event of SP failure, the peer SP would have all necessary information.
D. When an I/O arrives at the SP, acknowledgment is sent immediately to the host.
Answer: C
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44. A disk drive fails in a RAID 5 group without a hot spare. The failed disk is replaced with a new disk. Which operation will occur to replace the data on the new drive?
A. Clone
B. Repair
C. Rebuild
D. Equalize
Answer: C
45. What is a characteristic of write cache in CLARiiON arrays?
A. Both of the storage processors have the same information in their write cache.
B. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each storage processor.
C. Write cache size can be changed on the storage processors while write cache is enabled.
D. When an I/O arrives at the owning storage processor, acknowledgment is sent to the host.
Answer: A
46. What is a characteristic of write cache in CLARiiON arrays?
A. Write cache size cannot be changed without rebooting the SP.
B. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each SP.
C. In the event of SP failure, the peer SP would have all necessary information.
D. When an I/O arrives at the SP, acknowledgment is sent immediately to the host.
Answer: C
Tuesday, August 26, 2008
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (15)
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41. What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A. Monitors for hardware-related events only
B. Monitors for Navisphere-defined events only
C. Event Monitor is enabled as part of CLARalert/onALERT
D. Event Monitor is enabled as part of Navisphere Manager
Answer: D
42. When is a read cache hit recorded?
A. Only when a read request is satisfied out of read cache
B. Only when a read request is satisfied out of write cache
C. When a read request is satisfied out of the read cache vault area
D. When a read request is satisfied out of either read cache or write cache
Answer: D
43. A disk fails in a CLARiiON. The data is rebuilt onto the global hot spare. The failed drive is replaced. What is the next step?
A. Hot spare returns to Ready state.
B. CLARiiON phones home to report error.
C. Data is equalized from hot spare to new drive.
D. Data is rebuilt based on other drives in the RAID group.
Answer: C
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41. What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A. Monitors for hardware-related events only
B. Monitors for Navisphere-defined events only
C. Event Monitor is enabled as part of CLARalert/onALERT
D. Event Monitor is enabled as part of Navisphere Manager
Answer: D
42. When is a read cache hit recorded?
A. Only when a read request is satisfied out of read cache
B. Only when a read request is satisfied out of write cache
C. When a read request is satisfied out of the read cache vault area
D. When a read request is satisfied out of either read cache or write cache
Answer: D
43. A disk fails in a CLARiiON. The data is rebuilt onto the global hot spare. The failed drive is replaced. What is the next step?
A. Hot spare returns to Ready state.
B. CLARiiON phones home to report error.
C. Data is equalized from hot spare to new drive.
D. Data is rebuilt based on other drives in the RAID group.
Answer: C
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (14)
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38. What is the most important consideration for caching on a CLARiiON running sustained I/O loads?
A. Size of read cache
B. Size of write cache
C. Ability to flush cache
D. Write aside cache size
Answer: C
39. Which function is disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?
A. Multipathing
B. Basic Failover
C. LUNZ functionality
D. Access to peer SP paths
Answer: A
40. What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A. Integrated with Navisphere Manager
B. Loaded as a separately licensed NDU
C. Monitors for hardware-related events only
D. Monitors for Navisphere-defined events only
Answer: A
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38. What is the most important consideration for caching on a CLARiiON running sustained I/O loads?
A. Size of read cache
B. Size of write cache
C. Ability to flush cache
D. Write aside cache size
Answer: C
39. Which function is disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?
A. Multipathing
B. Basic Failover
C. LUNZ functionality
D. Access to peer SP paths
Answer: A
40. What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
A. Integrated with Navisphere Manager
B. Loaded as a separately licensed NDU
C. Monitors for hardware-related events only
D. Monitors for Navisphere-defined events only
Answer: A
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (13)
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35. A host writes one 128 KB I/O to a 4+1 RAID 5 LUN that is aligned. How many physical disks will be involved in the back-end I/O?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
36. If a LUN has a write-aside setting of 1023, which host I/O size will bypass write cache?
A. 256 KB
B. 256 blocks
C. 512 KB
D. 512 blocks
Answer: C
37. Which feature determines the availability of storage system write caching when a single drive in the cache vault fails?
A. HA cache vault
B. RAID 3 write buffer
C. Mirrored write cache
D. Enable watermarks
Answer: A
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35. A host writes one 128 KB I/O to a 4+1 RAID 5 LUN that is aligned. How many physical disks will be involved in the back-end I/O?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
36. If a LUN has a write-aside setting of 1023, which host I/O size will bypass write cache?
A. 256 KB
B. 256 blocks
C. 512 KB
D. 512 blocks
Answer: C
37. Which feature determines the availability of storage system write caching when a single drive in the cache vault fails?
A. HA cache vault
B. RAID 3 write buffer
C. Mirrored write cache
D. Enable watermarks
Answer: A
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (12)
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32. What is NOT required when upgrading from a CX500 to a CX3-80?
A. CX3 SPE enclosure
B. CX500 DPE becomes DAE
C. Only Fibre Channel drives present
D. Running minimum FLARE 19 patch 34
Answer: C
33. A customer is performing a data in place upgrade from an existing CX300 to a CX3 model. Which feature will maximize the 4 Gb/s technology?
A. Increased drive count
B. Auto-sensing front-end ports
C. Ability to retain existing DAEs
D. Increased number of back-end buses
Answer: D
34. If a LUN has a write-aside setting of 2048, which host I/O size will bypass write cache?
A. 1024 KB
B. 1024 blocks
C. 2048 KB
D. 2048 blocks
Answer: C
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32. What is NOT required when upgrading from a CX500 to a CX3-80?
A. CX3 SPE enclosure
B. CX500 DPE becomes DAE
C. Only Fibre Channel drives present
D. Running minimum FLARE 19 patch 34
Answer: C
33. A customer is performing a data in place upgrade from an existing CX300 to a CX3 model. Which feature will maximize the 4 Gb/s technology?
A. Increased drive count
B. Auto-sensing front-end ports
C. Ability to retain existing DAEs
D. Increased number of back-end buses
Answer: D
34. If a LUN has a write-aside setting of 2048, which host I/O size will bypass write cache?
A. 1024 KB
B. 1024 blocks
C. 2048 KB
D. 2048 blocks
Answer: C
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (11)
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29. Which RAID technology can survive simultaneous multiple disk failures?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 1/0
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B
30. When does the CLARiiON begin to do watermark flushing in write cache?
A. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark
B. When the cache dirty pages reach the high watermark
C. When the write cache has no more room for the next I/O
D. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark after a forced flush
Answer: B
31. What is a valid upgrade path for the CX700?
A. Upgrade to CX3-40c
B. Upgrade to CX3-40f
C. Upgrade to CX3-80
D. Upgrade CX700 FLARE and add 4 Gb/s DAE
Answer: C
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29. Which RAID technology can survive simultaneous multiple disk failures?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 1/0
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B
30. When does the CLARiiON begin to do watermark flushing in write cache?
A. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark
B. When the cache dirty pages reach the high watermark
C. When the write cache has no more room for the next I/O
D. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark after a forced flush
Answer: B
31. What is a valid upgrade path for the CX700?
A. Upgrade to CX3-40c
B. Upgrade to CX3-40f
C. Upgrade to CX3-80
D. Upgrade CX700 FLARE and add 4 Gb/s DAE
Answer: C
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (10)
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26. Which feature describes the PSM LUN on the CX Series or later array?
A. Both SPs access a single copy
B. Resides on the first nine drives
C. Viewable in Navisphere Manager
D. Created after array initialization by the administrator
Answer: A
27. On a CLARiiON, which RAID technology provides the best performance with a workload of random writes of 4 KB or less?
A. RAID 1/0
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
28. Which statement describes the difference between RAID 1/0 and RAID 0+1 when a disk fails and is replaced?
A. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected stripe. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the entire disk group.
B. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected disk only. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected stripe.
C. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected stripe. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected disk only.
D. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the entire disk group. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected stripe only.
Answer: B
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26. Which feature describes the PSM LUN on the CX Series or later array?
A. Both SPs access a single copy
B. Resides on the first nine drives
C. Viewable in Navisphere Manager
D. Created after array initialization by the administrator
Answer: A
27. On a CLARiiON, which RAID technology provides the best performance with a workload of random writes of 4 KB or less?
A. RAID 1/0
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
28. Which statement describes the difference between RAID 1/0 and RAID 0+1 when a disk fails and is replaced?
A. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected stripe. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the entire disk group.
B. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected disk only. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected stripe.
C. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the affected stripe. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected disk only.
D. RAID 1/0 rebuilds the entire disk group. RAID 0+1 rebuilds the affected stripe only.
Answer: B
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (9)
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23. Which RAID type is supported by two drives in a CLARiiON?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1/0
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: B
24. Which feature helps to maintain data integrity in a CLARiiON?
A. NOVRAM
B. Reserved LUN pool
C. Mirrored read cache
D. Standby power supplies
Answer: A
25. A storage administrator wants to consolidate data from a branch data center with a CX300 to a central data center with a CX3-80. The administrator needs to minimize the amount of data sent from the branch data center to the central data center.
Which replication software should be licensed on the CX300?
A. SAN Copy/E
B. SAN Copy
C. MirrorView/S
D. MirrorView/A
Answer: A
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23. Which RAID type is supported by two drives in a CLARiiON?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1/0
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: B
24. Which feature helps to maintain data integrity in a CLARiiON?
A. NOVRAM
B. Reserved LUN pool
C. Mirrored read cache
D. Standby power supplies
Answer: A
25. A storage administrator wants to consolidate data from a branch data center with a CX300 to a central data center with a CX3-80. The administrator needs to minimize the amount of data sent from the branch data center to the central data center.
Which replication software should be licensed on the CX300?
A. SAN Copy/E
B. SAN Copy
C. MirrorView/S
D. MirrorView/A
Answer: A
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (8)
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20. What describes a CLARiiON method of maintaining data integrity?
A. PSM LUN
B. Read cache
C. Background verify
D. Reserved LUN pool
Answer: C
21. When does idle flushing occur in the CLARiiON?
A. When the LUN is in an idle state
B. When the cache dirty pages have no more room for the next I/O
C. When the array is in an idle state and the dirty cache pages are above the high watermark
D. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark directly after forced flushing and the system is in an idle state
Answer: A
22. Which RAID type is supported by CLARiiON?
A. RAID 2
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID S
Answer: B
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20. What describes a CLARiiON method of maintaining data integrity?
A. PSM LUN
B. Read cache
C. Background verify
D. Reserved LUN pool
Answer: C
21. When does idle flushing occur in the CLARiiON?
A. When the LUN is in an idle state
B. When the cache dirty pages have no more room for the next I/O
C. When the array is in an idle state and the dirty cache pages are above the high watermark
D. When the cache dirty pages reach the low watermark directly after forced flushing and the system is in an idle state
Answer: A
22. Which RAID type is supported by CLARiiON?
A. RAID 2
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID S
Answer: B
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (7)
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17. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SnapView
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
18. In the event of a data center power failure, which feature is used by the CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Vault area
B. Dual LCCs
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Global hot spare disks
Answer: A
19. Which feature is used by CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Background verify
B. RAID 0 protection
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Mirrored read cache
Answer: A
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17. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SnapView
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
18. In the event of a data center power failure, which feature is used by the CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Vault area
B. Dual LCCs
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Global hot spare disks
Answer: A
19. Which feature is used by CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Background verify
B. RAID 0 protection
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Mirrored read cache
Answer: A
Monday, August 25, 2008
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (6)
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16. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SAN Copy/E
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
17. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SnapView
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
18. In the event of a data center power failure, which feature is used by the CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Vault area
B. Dual LCCs
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Global hot spare disks
Answer: A
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16. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SAN Copy/E
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
17. Which replication software can be installed on a CX300?
A. SAN Copy
B. SnapView
C. MirrorView/A
D. MirrorView/S
Answer: B
18. In the event of a data center power failure, which feature is used by the CLARiiON to maintain data integrity?
A. Vault area
B. Dual LCCs
C. Reserved LUN pool
D. Global hot spare disks
Answer: A
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (5)
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13. Which name is given to a hot spare drive used as the destination to hold the copy data from the failing drive?
A. Failover spare
B. Standby spare
C. Proactive spare
D. Probational spare
Answer: C
14. What is the effect of forced flushing?
A. I/O to the array is stopped until enough dirty write cache pages are flushed to fit the next incoming I/O.
B. I/O to the array is stopped until enough dirty write cache pages are flushed to reach the high watermark.
C. Incoming I/0 is written to disk without going through write cache, until enough write cache pages are flushed to reach the low watermark.
D. Incoming I/0 is written to disk without going through write cache, until enough write cache pages are flushed to reach the high watermark.
Answer: A
15. How can proactive sparing be initiated?
A. Drive failure
B. Navisphere GUI only
C. navicli, Navisphere GUI
D. Navisphere GUI, naviseccli
Answer: D
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13. Which name is given to a hot spare drive used as the destination to hold the copy data from the failing drive?
A. Failover spare
B. Standby spare
C. Proactive spare
D. Probational spare
Answer: C
14. What is the effect of forced flushing?
A. I/O to the array is stopped until enough dirty write cache pages are flushed to fit the next incoming I/O.
B. I/O to the array is stopped until enough dirty write cache pages are flushed to reach the high watermark.
C. Incoming I/0 is written to disk without going through write cache, until enough write cache pages are flushed to reach the low watermark.
D. Incoming I/0 is written to disk without going through write cache, until enough write cache pages are flushed to reach the high watermark.
Answer: A
15. How can proactive sparing be initiated?
A. Drive failure
B. Navisphere GUI only
C. navicli, Navisphere GUI
D. Navisphere GUI, naviseccli
Answer: D
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (4)
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10. Which feature does the PowerPath GUI provide to users?
A. Connect a host to a storage group
B. Change a CLARiiON path from active to standby
C. Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
D. Change the CLARiiON storage processor from active to standby
Answer: B
11. When does the CLARiiON begin to do forced flushing in write cache?
A. When the write cache reaches 95%
B. When the write cache reaches the high watermark
C. When the write cache exceeds the high watermark
D. When the write cache has no more room for the next I/O
Answer: D
12. A customer has a CX500 running MirrorView and SAN Copy along with 16 hosts, which are all dual-connected. The customer is looking to add more servers as well as separate the host I/O from replication I/O. Performance has not been an issue on the array.
What would be a recommended upgrade path?
A. CX3-40
B. CX3-40c
C. CX3-40f
D. CX3-80
Answer: C
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10. Which feature does the PowerPath GUI provide to users?
A. Connect a host to a storage group
B. Change a CLARiiON path from active to standby
C. Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
D. Change the CLARiiON storage processor from active to standby
Answer: B
11. When does the CLARiiON begin to do forced flushing in write cache?
A. When the write cache reaches 95%
B. When the write cache reaches the high watermark
C. When the write cache exceeds the high watermark
D. When the write cache has no more room for the next I/O
Answer: D
12. A customer has a CX500 running MirrorView and SAN Copy along with 16 hosts, which are all dual-connected. The customer is looking to add more servers as well as separate the host I/O from replication I/O. Performance has not been an issue on the array.
What would be a recommended upgrade path?
A. CX3-40
B. CX3-40c
C. CX3-40f
D. CX3-80
Answer: C
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (3)
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7. What is a SAN Copy requirement within a CLARiiON-only environment?
A. LUNs must be available to SAN Copy ports
B. Both storage processors must have CPLs created
C. SAN Copy must be installed on both storage systems
D. Source storage system must have SAN Copy installed
Answer: A
8. Where is the scope of the user's management role kept?
A. On the host
B. On the array
C. On the LDAP server
D. On the host, LDAP server, and array
Answer: B
9. A user expanded a CLARiiON LUN through concatenation. This LUN is formatted as a Windows Basic disk. How would the user increase the size of the file system?
A. It is not possible
B. Reboot the Windows host
C. Use the diskpart.exe utility
D. Use Disk Management and select Expand
Answer: C
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7. What is a SAN Copy requirement within a CLARiiON-only environment?
A. LUNs must be available to SAN Copy ports
B. Both storage processors must have CPLs created
C. SAN Copy must be installed on both storage systems
D. Source storage system must have SAN Copy installed
Answer: A
8. Where is the scope of the user's management role kept?
A. On the host
B. On the array
C. On the LDAP server
D. On the host, LDAP server, and array
Answer: B
9. A user expanded a CLARiiON LUN through concatenation. This LUN is formatted as a Windows Basic disk. How would the user increase the size of the file system?
A. It is not possible
B. Reboot the Windows host
C. Use the diskpart.exe utility
D. Use Disk Management and select Expand
Answer: C
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (2)
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4. A SnapView session is started on a source LUN at 1:20 P.M. A snapshot is activated and assigned to a secondary host. The secondary host makes changes to the snapshot.
The storage administrator removes the source LUN from the primary host's storage group at 2:15 P.M. and deactivates the snapshot at the same time. The snapshot is removed from the secondary host's storage group at 2:30 P.M. A rollback operation is started at 3:15 P.M.
Which data will the source LUN contain once the rollback completes?
A. The primary host's 1:20 P.M. view of the data
B. The primary host's 2:15 P.M. view of the data
C. The secondary host's 2:30 P.M. view of the data
D. The secondary host's 3:15 P.M. view of the data
Answer: A
5. What is an attribute of a clone private LUN?
A. Contains write intent logs
B. Must be 128 MB or greater in size
C. Must be the same RAID type as the source LUN
D. Shared by both storage processors simultaneously
Answer: B
6. A MirrorView/A mirror has been configured with the Start of Last Update value set to 15. An update cycle starts at 3:10 P.M. (15:10) and finishes at 3:30 P.M. (15:30). When does the next cycle start?
A. 3:25 P.M. (15:25)
B. 3:30 P.M. (15:30)
C. 3:35 P.M. (15:35)
D. 3:40 P.M. (15:40)
Answer: B
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4. A SnapView session is started on a source LUN at 1:20 P.M. A snapshot is activated and assigned to a secondary host. The secondary host makes changes to the snapshot.
The storage administrator removes the source LUN from the primary host's storage group at 2:15 P.M. and deactivates the snapshot at the same time. The snapshot is removed from the secondary host's storage group at 2:30 P.M. A rollback operation is started at 3:15 P.M.
Which data will the source LUN contain once the rollback completes?
A. The primary host's 1:20 P.M. view of the data
B. The primary host's 2:15 P.M. view of the data
C. The secondary host's 2:30 P.M. view of the data
D. The secondary host's 3:15 P.M. view of the data
Answer: A
5. What is an attribute of a clone private LUN?
A. Contains write intent logs
B. Must be 128 MB or greater in size
C. Must be the same RAID type as the source LUN
D. Shared by both storage processors simultaneously
Answer: B
6. A MirrorView/A mirror has been configured with the Start of Last Update value set to 15. An update cycle starts at 3:10 P.M. (15:10) and finishes at 3:30 P.M. (15:30). When does the next cycle start?
A. 3:25 P.M. (15:25)
B. 3:30 P.M. (15:30)
C. 3:35 P.M. (15:35)
D. 3:40 P.M. (15:40)
Answer: B
Calriion Solutions Specialist Exam E20-520 (1)
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1. Which feature describes the PSM LUN in the CLARiiON CX Series?
A. Each SP accesses its own copy
B. Viewable in Navisphere Manager
C. Located on all disk drives in an array
D. Records information about the array
Answer: D
2. What is a characteristic of the write cache in the CLARiiON?
A. Serial connections are used as an alternate path for CMI.
B. Cache page size can be changed with write cache enabled.
C. Both storage processors have the same information in write cache.
D. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each SP.
Answer: C
3. Which statement applies to a SnapView snapshot?
A. A snapshot is dependent on the source LUN.
B. A snapshot is independent of the source LUN.
C. A snapshot requires a dedicated reserved LUN pool for each source LUN.
D. It may take several minutes before a snapshot is available for secondary host access.
Answer: A
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1. Which feature describes the PSM LUN in the CLARiiON CX Series?
A. Each SP accesses its own copy
B. Viewable in Navisphere Manager
C. Located on all disk drives in an array
D. Records information about the array
Answer: D
2. What is a characteristic of the write cache in the CLARiiON?
A. Serial connections are used as an alternate path for CMI.
B. Cache page size can be changed with write cache enabled.
C. Both storage processors have the same information in write cache.
D. The amount of write cache can be configured separately on each SP.
Answer: C
3. Which statement applies to a SnapView snapshot?
A. A snapshot is dependent on the source LUN.
B. A snapshot is independent of the source LUN.
C. A snapshot requires a dedicated reserved LUN pool for each source LUN.
D. It may take several minutes before a snapshot is available for secondary host access.
Answer: A
Thursday, August 21, 2008
EMC Certification exam Q&A (3)
7.At which hierarchical level is retention set in EmailXtender?
A. Folders
B. Volumes
C. Email Vault
D. Monthly Data
E. Cabinets
Answer: A
8.Which two functions does the exAdmin.exe perform? (Choose two.)
A. configures communication with the License Server to determine EX license validity
B. performs mail classification before EmailXtender (EX) saves mail in the EX Mess age
Center
C. performs user authentication and search tasks
D. displays the EmailXtender event log.
Answer: A,D
9.Which two functions does exArchive perform? (Choose two.)
A. creates container files
B. monitors message volumes
C. retrieves operating statistics for volumes, indexes, and general system parameters
D. pulls messages from the journaling mailboxes
Answer: A,B
10.What is the result of executing chkidx -u
A. repairs the indexes for the entire month
B. repairs only bad indexes within any given month
C. re-indexes every index
D. removes the monthly index for a particular month
Answer: B
A. Folders
B. Volumes
C. Email Vault
D. Monthly Data
E. Cabinets
Answer: A
8.Which two functions does the exAdmin.exe perform? (Choose two.)
A. configures communication with the License Server to determine EX license validity
B. performs mail classification before EmailXtender (EX) saves mail in the EX Mess age
Center
C. performs user authentication and search tasks
D. displays the EmailXtender event log.
Answer: A,D
9.Which two functions does exArchive perform? (Choose two.)
A. creates container files
B. monitors message volumes
C. retrieves operating statistics for volumes, indexes, and general system parameters
D. pulls messages from the journaling mailboxes
Answer: A,B
10.What is the result of executing chkidx -u
A. repairs the indexes for the entire month
B. repairs only bad indexes within any given month
C. re-indexes every index
D. removes the monthly index for a particular month
Answer: B
EMC Certification exam Q&A (2)
4.Where are EmailXtender System Admin privileges defined?
A. in the EmailXtender Administrator Supervisor dialog
B. in the local server administrator group
C. in the local server ExAdmin group
D. in the EmailXtender Manager dialog
Answer: C
5.Which report provides details about sampling settings and message review group membership?
A. Group Membership report
B. Message Detail report
C. Group Activity report
D. Configuration report
Answer: D
6.How does the EmailXtender Domino listener function on Windows platforms?
A. It links into the mail.box and makes an entry in the notes.ini file.
B. It is triggered by a "at_msg_post" event to copy content from users' NSF files.
C. It listens on SMTP port 25 and intercepts all incoming and outgoing email.
D. The Domino milter is turned on during the installation of the listener.
Answer: A
A. in the EmailXtender Administrator Supervisor dialog
B. in the local server administrator group
C. in the local server ExAdmin group
D. in the EmailXtender Manager dialog
Answer: C
5.Which report provides details about sampling settings and message review group membership?
A. Group Membership report
B. Message Detail report
C. Group Activity report
D. Configuration report
Answer: D
6.How does the EmailXtender Domino listener function on Windows platforms?
A. It links into the mail.box and makes an entry in the notes.ini file.
B. It is triggered by a "at_msg_post" event to copy content from users' NSF files.
C. It listens on SMTP port 25 and intercepts all incoming and outgoing email.
D. The Domino milter is turned on during the installation of the listener.
Answer: A
Wednesday, August 20, 2008
EMC Certification exam contents (1)
1.Which EmailXtender service is responsible for closing containers?
A. ExAddrRule
B. ExVolMgr
C. ExArchive
D. ExEmail
E. ExIndex
Answer: C
2.A company is using Exchange2000. The connector mailbox is properly defined through the EmailXtender administrator. However, mail is not collecting in the connector mailbox. Why isn't the mail being archived into the connector mailbox?
A. Archiving is not enabled on the Exchange server.
B. Outlook is not installed on the EmailXtender server.
C. Administrator is not logged in to the domain.
D. Outlook is currently not the default mail client.
Answer: A
3.Which three messaging systems are supported by EmailXtender version 4.5? (Choose three.)
A. Novell GroupWise 6.5 on NetWare 5.0
B. Sendmail 8.12.06 on Solaris 8
C. Lotus Domino 5.0.11 on AS/400
D. Microsoft Exchange 2000 on Windows 2000
E. Lotus ccMail 7.0 on AIX 4.3
Answer: B,C,D
A. ExAddrRule
B. ExVolMgr
C. ExArchive
D. ExEmail
E. ExIndex
Answer: C
2.A company is using Exchange2000. The connector mailbox is properly defined through the EmailXtender administrator. However, mail is not collecting in the connector mailbox. Why isn't the mail being archived into the connector mailbox?
A. Archiving is not enabled on the Exchange server.
B. Outlook is not installed on the EmailXtender server.
C. Administrator is not logged in to the domain.
D. Outlook is currently not the default mail client.
Answer: A
3.Which three messaging systems are supported by EmailXtender version 4.5? (Choose three.)
A. Novell GroupWise 6.5 on NetWare 5.0
B. Sendmail 8.12.06 on Solaris 8
C. Lotus Domino 5.0.11 on AS/400
D. Microsoft Exchange 2000 on Windows 2000
E. Lotus ccMail 7.0 on AIX 4.3
Answer: B,C,D
Friday, August 15, 2008
EMC has introduced a voluntary Centera certification initiative as part of its ISV integration program.
EMC has introduced a voluntary Centera certification initiative as part of its ISV integration program.
A spokesperson for EMC said the new certification was voluntary. It would be made available to vendors who wished to have their integration assessed or to confirm that their integration met certification requirements.
"While EMC has assisted partners to coding to best practise, the actual 'certification' piece is new, and not just an update of an existing program," the spokesperson said.
The storage vendor has claimed the certification program will speed customer implementations of content addressed storage (CAS), by minimising the need for customers to test applications and do custom development work.
An initial set of EMC Centera certified applications had been completed. Centera had a "free and open" application programming interface (API), supported by 400 partners, resellers and ISVs, the company added.
EMC was working with VeriTest, a testing division of application testing firm Lionbridge, to verify the applications passed "strict integration criteria", it said in a statement.
So far, applications from Documentum, Legato, Arkivio, Acartus, BMC Software, Bustech, Iron Mountain, IBM, Veritas, NICE, Stellant and Zantaz had been certified.
Tom Heiser, general manager of EMC's Centera division, said Centera had a range of third-party support.
"The EMC Centera Certification Program helps our customers and partners by addressing any issues up front, in the lab, rather than at the customer site," he said. "This is the initial group of ISVs to be certified with many more in process."
Certified companies could use the EMC Centera Certified logo and attend events such as EMC Technology Summits and participate in EMC channel initiatives.
A spokesperson for EMC said the new certification was voluntary. It would be made available to vendors who wished to have their integration assessed or to confirm that their integration met certification requirements.
"While EMC has assisted partners to coding to best practise, the actual 'certification' piece is new, and not just an update of an existing program," the spokesperson said.
The storage vendor has claimed the certification program will speed customer implementations of content addressed storage (CAS), by minimising the need for customers to test applications and do custom development work.
An initial set of EMC Centera certified applications had been completed. Centera had a "free and open" application programming interface (API), supported by 400 partners, resellers and ISVs, the company added.
EMC was working with VeriTest, a testing division of application testing firm Lionbridge, to verify the applications passed "strict integration criteria", it said in a statement.
So far, applications from Documentum, Legato, Arkivio, Acartus, BMC Software, Bustech, Iron Mountain, IBM, Veritas, NICE, Stellant and Zantaz had been certified.
Tom Heiser, general manager of EMC's Centera division, said Centera had a range of third-party support.
"The EMC Centera Certification Program helps our customers and partners by addressing any issues up front, in the lab, rather than at the customer site," he said. "This is the initial group of ISVs to be certified with many more in process."
Certified companies could use the EMC Centera Certified logo and attend events such as EMC Technology Summits and participate in EMC channel initiatives.
EMC Test / EMC Certification
The Center for Quality Engineering of the Nokia Siemens Networks GmbH & Co. KG in Munich is ready to perform your EMC-planning. Thereby it is the aim, to work out the needed level of immunity and the limits for emitted interference and to determine this results in quality specifications. Controlling and testing are important ingredients of quality assurance – also in the field of EMC. We are supporting developers and designers to realize reasonable EMC-Measures and we perform all necessary tests. That compliance to the EMC requirements according to to the EMC-directive is the base for the CE-marking, which is required by law. The Center for Quality Engineering of the Siemens Networks GmbH & Co. KG in Munich performs EMC- and safety tests on equipment and on systems in its accredited laboratories. The engineering skills and the test-equipment allow to perform all measuring procedures for immunity, emissions, EDS, conducted vehicles transients, ... We cover the following relevant EMC standards:EN, IEC, T
elcordia, VCCI, VDE, CISPR, ITU-T (CCITT), FCC, ETSI, VG, MIL. We provide for you the following measurement methods:
Immunity to interference
Emission measurements
ESD tests
Conducted vehicles transients
Harmonics and flicker
elcordia, VCCI, VDE, CISPR, ITU-T (CCITT), FCC, ETSI, VG, MIL. Immunity to interference
Emission measurements
ESD tests
Conducted vehicles transients
Harmonics and flicker
EMC Certification Programs
EMC Certification Programs validate your knowledge, build your credibility, and take the guesswork out of assessing your skills and capabilities.
EMC Certification Programs will help you:
Differentiate yourself in a market that demands highly skilled professionals. Access exclusive benefits that make your job easier and further increase your value. Receive quality education from one of the top-ranked technology training companies.
The award-winning EMC Proven Professional training, accreditation, and certification framework helps students achieve information storage and management expertise, expanding opportunities to move from individual contributor to strategic technology advisor.
EMC certification delivers the knowledge and skills to increase productivity, while maximizing your time with flexible training options. Receive on-the-job benefits, such as Knowledge Maintenance, and demonstrate that you are among the elite storage professionals in the field with EMC Proven Professional certification.
Advance your career and start earning your EMC certification quickly and easily using the quality Killtest learning products.
EMC Certification Programs will help you:
Differentiate yourself in a market that demands highly skilled professionals. Access exclusive benefits that make your job easier and further increase your value. Receive quality education from one of the top-ranked technology training companies.
The award-winning EMC Proven Professional training, accreditation, and certification framework helps students achieve information storage and management expertise, expanding opportunities to move from individual contributor to strategic technology advisor.
EMC certification delivers the knowledge and skills to increase productivity, while maximizing your time with flexible training options. Receive on-the-job benefits, such as Knowledge Maintenance, and demonstrate that you are among the elite storage professionals in the field with EMC Proven Professional certification.
Advance your career and start earning your EMC certification quickly and easily using the quality Killtest learning products.
EMC Corporation
EMC’s Lean Six Sigma program building blocks:
Centralized training program
Single online repository
Established financial guidelines
Certification and recognition programs
Mentor and facilitations offerings
For rewards and recognition, EMC gives out cash certification awards: $2,000 for Green Belts and $4,000 for Black Belts. That’s a nice chunk of change for anyone. If you’re motivated by money, it’s also a good enough reason to get trained! They also use Black Belt training as a part of their emerging leader program. That kind of emphasis on the Six Sigma really does solidify the committment and thus shapes the culture of a company.Key takeaways:
Leverage existing culture
Lean Six Sigma does not have to be a mandate
Use big projects and grassroots to be most effective
Must prove the results
Over communicate the wins
Build a strong infrastructure (training, financial, reporting)
There are more than just financial benefits, measure them
Some real questions and correct answers for EMC exam e20-340
1.Which CLARiiON option can minimize the write performance impact of certain hardware failure conditions?
A: Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk fails
B: Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
C: Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
D: Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk failsCorrect
Answers: D
2.What is the M Series fabric security implementation?
A: PROtegrity
B: Invista
C: SANtegrity
D: Secure Fabric OSCorrect
Answers: C
3.Your customer has two CLARiiON storage systems. A new host is installed running a volume manager.
How should you configure the CLARiiONs for load balancing and storage processor distribution?
A: Create cross-plaids on the same array
B: Create multisystem plaids
C: Create plaids using different (odd/even) buses
D: Create plaids avoiding DAE crossingCorrect
Answers: B
4.Which command will return information for SAN Copy sessions running on SPA?
A: java -jar navicli.jar -h sancopy -info
B: java -jar navicli.jar -h sancopy -getinfo
C: navicli -h sancopy -collect
D: naviseccli -h sancopy -infoCorrect
Answers: D
5.Which CLARiiON feature allows the replacement of a disk drive without operating in degraded mode during the hot spare rebuild operation?
A: Fast Hot Spare
B: Hot Spare
C: Proactive Hot Spare
D: Protective Hot SpareCorrect
Answers: C
A: Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk fails
B: Checking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
C: Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if an SP fails
D: Unchecking the HA Vault option prevents write cache from being disabled if a vault disk failsCorrect
Answers: D
2.What is the M Series fabric security implementation?
A: PROtegrity
B: Invista
C: SANtegrity
D: Secure Fabric OSCorrect
Answers: C
3.Your customer has two CLARiiON storage systems. A new host is installed running a volume manager.
How should you configure the CLARiiONs for load balancing and storage processor distribution?
A: Create cross-plaids on the same array
B: Create multisystem plaids
C: Create plaids using different (odd/even) buses
D: Create plaids avoiding DAE crossingCorrect
Answers: B
4.Which command will return information for SAN Copy sessions running on SPA?
A: java -jar navicli.jar -h sancopy -info
B: java -jar navicli.jar -h sancopy -getinfo
C: navicli -h sancopy -collect
D: naviseccli -h sancopy -infoCorrect
Answers: D
5.Which CLARiiON feature allows the replacement of a disk drive without operating in degraded mode during the hot spare rebuild operation?
A: Fast Hot Spare
B: Hot Spare
C: Proactive Hot Spare
D: Protective Hot SpareCorrect
Answers: C
Wednesday, August 13, 2008
E22-181 EMC Certification
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Comprehensive questions with complete details about e22-181 exam.
e22-181 exam questions accompanied by exhibits.
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts and almost 100% correct.
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Real EMC Certification exam.
e22-181 exam questions updated on regular basis.
Like actual EMC Certification Certification exams, e22-181 exam preparation is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs).
Tested by many real EMC Certification exams before publishing.
Try free EMC Certification exam demo before you decide to buy it in http://www.Killtest.com.
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